Is this a true translation from the French Wikipedia or just the English Version to begin with? Still not completely sure

 I'm thinking that this likely is not a translation of the French version of Wikipedia. This is why I think this. (OF course I could be wrong too).

The reason I this is not a translation from French to English is the following: When you use Google Translate in the past and translate (il) which means he or it into English often this problem shows itself in the translation into English as a confusion between anything that could be (it ) or (he) this is one way to check this. However, it is also true that Google Translate might have compensated for this every day error between translating from French to English as well. So, I'm not absolutely sure here either.

• Count of St. Germain translated from French which would be the Comte De Saint Germain

For example In French I could say: 

"Il est du pain et du beurre" which could mean either "He is bread and butter" or "It is bread and butter".

You and I likely could realize- He could not be bread and butter but it COULD be bread and butter but when I used to translate something like this it could come out either way on Google Translate. For example, it might translate "Il est du pain et du beurre" as "He is bread and butter".

So, in this one way I used to be able to tell whether I was getting a direct translation from Google Translate or not. Now I'm less sure because of more accurate AI being involved in these translations now likely.

Why is this important? Because the French have much more relevant history regarding the Comte De Saint Germain than likely the English or American Version of Wikipedia.

Why is this? Because the Comte de Saint Germain actually lived in France most of the time even though he went to England and Germany and Austria and all over Europe too as well. He might have even traveled to India and Asia because he was known as a foremost authority on Almost All Asian Languages and cultures too. Did he study with Gurus in India and Tibet and Nepal. This is quite possible also.

Why?

Because starting during Queen Elizabeth I's reign she started a relationship with India through trade in 1608. 

Also, since Francis Bacon was likely the Comte De Saint Germain in France he would have been interested in going to India too since he was still alive in 1608 because Francis Bacon was born in 1561 likely as an illegitmate birth from Queen Elizabeth I of England. At the time of Francis Bacon's Birth Queen Elizabeth was 28 years old or a prime child bearing age at that time in history. I think most women had children starting around 12 to 14 years old into their 30s then.

Here is something regarding her expeditions to East India in 1608.

begin quote from:

1608

The British first landed on Indian territory in 1608 at Surat. The British East India Company was given a Royal Charter by Queen Elizabeth I on December 31, 1600, which granted the company a monopoly on trade with the East Indies.

When And Why British First Land On Indian Territory?

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