Why doesn't the law hear women?

I read the first sentence to my wife who has a master's degree in Business Administration and she got mad at me regarding women "Owning" their children. she said it has to be "Having actual custody by law of their children while they are growing up

My thought is if you study the history of the law you start seeing how not too far back women could not even "OWN" their children or even homes in our law coming from England here in the U.S.

So, how this actually should read then is -"---not too far back women didn't even have custody of their children legally and couldn't even own their own homes or other properties."

Here in California it is different because our legal system began in Spain where it was or is more of a matriarchal system where women own a lot of stuff, sometimes more than men. So, that is why women have many more rights in California because the legal system originated in Spain because Spain first ruled California after the Native American Tribes here. Then around 1848 to 1850 when California became a state mostly because of the Gold Rush and Kit Carson and a few others, things changed but because most residents of California then were from Mexico or Spain, the same laws tended to stay in place so as not to create chaos of the legal system here with the Spanish Land Grants and all that. So, women as a result have many more rights in California than in almost any other state in the U.S.

But, in most of the rest of the country women's rights are far more iffy at best. So, this is one of the many problems women face every day in about 49 of the 50 states here in the U.S.